Indian Parliament related short questions pdf download

Indian Parliament related short questions pdf download

811. Which of the following are correct about the Rajya Sabha?
1. It is not a subject to dissolution.
2. It has a term of five years.
3. One-third of its members retire after every two years.
4. Its member shall not be less than 25 years of age. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2 and 4
Ans: (C)


812. Formation of Parliament is completed by
(A) Only House of the People
(B) House of the People and Prime Minister
(C) House of the People, Council of States and Prime Minister
(D) House of the People, Council of States and President
Ans: (D)


813. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists. List-I (States)
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Karnataka
(d) West Bengal List-II (Seats)
1. 11 2. 19
3. 12 4. 16 Code
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 2 1 4 3 (D) 4 2 3 1
Ans: (A)


814. Maximum how many times the Parliament has to meet in a year?
(A) Once (B) Twice
(C) Thrice (D) Four times
Ans: (B)


815. Indian Parliament consists of
(A) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Prime Minister
(C) Speaker and Lok Sabha
(D) President and both the House of Parliament
Ans: (D)


816. Which of the following constitute the Indian Parliament?
(A) President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Prime Minister
(C) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
(D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Parliament Secretariat
Ans: (A)


817. What should be the interval between the two consecutive sessions of Parliament?
(A) Four months
(B) Six months
(C) 1 year
(D) Fixed by the President
Ans: (B)


818. The membership of a Parliament/ Legislative Assembly’s membership may be terminated if he remains absent without informing to respective House for a term of
(A) 60 days
(B) 90 days
(C) 120 days
(D) 150 days
Ans: (A)


819. Who/which of the following is not an integral part of Parliament?
(A) President
(B) Vice-President
(C) Lok Sabha
(D) Rajya Sabha
Ans: (B)


820. Which one of the following provisions deals with the privileges and immunities of the Members of Parliament under the Constitution of India?
(A) Article 104 (B) Article 105
(C) Article 82 (D) Article 117
Ans: (B)


821. For the first time, a MP/MLA was disqualified from the membership on the ground of remaining absent from sixty consecutive meetings of the House without the permission. He was a member of
(A) Council of States
(B) House of People
(C) Punjab Legislative Assembly
(D) Rajasthan Legislative Assembly
Ans: (A)


822. Privilege motion can be raised against a Minister when he
(A) Loses confidence in the Government
(B) Absents himself for a long time
(C) Withholds facts of a case or given distorted versions of facts
(D) Limit value
Ans: (C)


823. Which one of the following is not a collective privilege of the members of Parliament?
(A) Freedom of debates and proceedings
(B) The Rights to regulate the internal matters of the Parliament
(C) Freedom from attendance as Witness
(D) The privilegeds of excluding strangers from the house
Ans: (C)


824. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) Only the Rajya Sabha and not the Lok Sabha can have nominated members
(B) There is a Constitutional provision for nominating two members belonging to the Anglo-Indian community to the Rajya Sabha
(C) There is no Constitutional bar for nominated members to be appointed as a Union Minister
(D) A nominated member can vote both in the Presidential and Vice-Presidential elections
Ans: (C)


825. Who among the following has the right to vote in the elections to both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha?
(A) Elected members of the Lower House of the Parliament
(B) Elected members of the Upper House of the Parliament
(C) Elected members of the Upper House of the state Legislature
(D) Elected members of the Lower House of the state Legislature
Ans: (D)


826. The Parliament can make law for the whole or any part of India for implementing International Treaties.
(A) With the consent of all the States
(B) With the consent of majority of States
(C) With the consent of the States concerned
(D) Without the consent of any State
Ans: (D)


827. Parliament may legislate on any subject of State List when
(A) There is assent of President
(B) Resolution thereof has been passed by State
(C) In any situation
(D) General permission of State Legislative Assembly has ben received
Ans: (B)


828. Which one of the following statement is correct?
(A) All the members of Council of States are elected by State Legislative Assemblies
(B) As the Vice-President is the exofficio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, only a member of the Rajya Sabha can contest for the office of the Vice-President
(C) A point difference between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is that while a candidate to Lok Sabha can contest from any State in India, a candidate to the Rajya Sabha should ordinarily be a resident of the State from where he is contesting
(D) The Constitution of India explicitly prohibits the appointment of a nominated member of the Rajya Sabha to the post of minister
Ans: (C)


829. Who can legislate on the subjects which are not included in any of the lists of subjects given in the Constitution?
(A) Supreme Court
(B) Parliament
(C) State Legislature
(D) Regional Councils
Ans: (B)


830. The Speaker can ask a member of the House to stop speaking and let another member speak. This phenomenon is known as
(A) Decorum
(B) Crossing the floor
(C) Interpellation
(D) Yielding the floor
Ans: (D)


831. Which of the following procedures will enable the adoption of a Money Bill that was once passed by the Lok Sabha but was amended by the Rajya Sabha?
(A) It will go to the President
(B) The Lok Sabha will have pass it with 2/3rd majority of the members sitting and voting
(C) A Joint session of the two Houses will be called
(D) It will be deemed to have been passed if the Lok Sabha passes it again either by accepting or rejecting the amendments
Ans: (D)


832. What could be the maximum time limit of ‘Zero Hour’ in the Lok Sabha?
(A) 30 minutes
(B) One hour
(C) Indefinite period
(D) Two hours
Ans: (B)


833. ‘Zero Hour’ is the contribution of which country to the Parliamentary System?
(A) India (B) America
(C) Britain (D) Switzerland
Ans: (A)


834. Zero Hour in political jargon refers to
(A) Day when no business in Parliament is done
(B) Suspended motion
(C) Adjourned time
(D) Question-answer session
Ans: (D)


835. Time of zero hour in Parliament is
(A) 9 am to 10 am
(B) 10 am to 11 am
(C) 11 am to 12 noon
(D) 12 noon to 1:00 pm
Ans: (D)


836. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament can make laws on State List subject for giving effect to international agreements?
(A) Article 249 (B) Article 250
(C) Article 252 (D) Article 253
Ans: (D)


837. The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties
(A) With the consent of all the States
(B) With the consent of the majority of States
(C) With the consent of the States concerned
(D) Without the consent of any State
Ans: (D)


838. A Money Bill passed by Lok Sabha is deemed to have been passed by Rajya Sabha also when no action is taken by the Rajya Sabha within
(A) 10 days (B) 14 days
(C) 15 days (D) 16 days
Ans: (B)


839. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) A Money Bill is introduced in the Rajya Sabha
(B) A Money Bill can be introduced in either of the two Houses of the Parliament
(C) A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Lok Sabha
(D) A Money Bill is introduced in the Lok Sabha
Ans: (D)


840. In how many days Rajya Sabha has to return Money Bill to Lok Sabha?
(A) Within 12 days
(B) Within 14 days
(C) Within 16 days
(D) Within 18 days
Ans: (B)


841. Rajya Sabha can delay the Finance Bill sent for its consideration by Lok Sabha for a maximum period of
(A) One month
(B) One year
(C) Seven days
(D) Fourteen days
Ans: (D)


842. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by
(A) A simple majority of members present and voting
(B) Three-fourth majority of members present and voting
(C) Two-third majority of the Houses
(D) Absolute majority of the Houses
Ans: (A)


843. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) Money Bill is introduced in Rajya Sabha
(B) Money Bill is introduced in Lok Sabha
(C) It can be introduced in either of the Houses of the Parliament
(D) It cannot be introduced in Lok Sabha
Ans: (B)


844. Who among the following is authorised to preside over the joint session of the Parliament?
(A) President of India
(B) Vice-President of India
(C) Prime Minister of India
(D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Ans: (D)


845. Who presides over the joint session of both the Houses of the Parliament?
(A) Speaker
(B) Vice-President
(C) President
(D) Prime Minister
Ans: (A)


846. The joint sitting of both Houses of Indian Parliament is held in connection with
(A) Constitution Amendment Bill
(B) Money Bill
(C) Ordinary Bill
(D) Election of the Vice-President of India
Ans: (C)


847. The 1st Joint meeting of both Houses of the Indian Parliament was held in connection with
(A) Dowry Abolition Bill
(B) Hindu Code Bill
(C) Bank Nationalisation Bill
(D) Gold Control Bill
Ans: (A)


848. Who has the right to issue money from the Consolidated Fund of India?
(A) Comptroller and Auditor General
(B) Finance Minister of India
(C) Authorized Minister
(D) Parliament
Ans: (D)


849. A legislative bill may be introduced in which House of Parliament?
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Either House of Parliament
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C)


850. Which one of the following is not a mandatory expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India?
(A) Debt Charges for which Government of India is liable
(B) Salary and Pension of the members of the Election Commission of India
(C) Pension payable to Judges of High Courts
(D) Allowances of Deputy Chairman of Council of States
Ans: (B)


851. Which one of the following expenditure is not charged on the Consolidated Fund of India?
(A) Salary and allowances of the Chief Justice of India
(B) Salary and allowances of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(C) Salary and allowances of the Prime Minister of India
(D) Salary and allowances of the Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
Ans: (C)


852. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from
(A) The President of India
(B) The Parliament of India
(C) The Prime Minister of India
(D) The Union Finance Minister
Ans: (B)


853. Which one of the following expenditures is not charged on the Consolidates Fund of India?
(A) Salary and allowances of the President of India
(B) Salary and allowances of the Vice-President of India
(C) Salary and allowances of the Justices of the Supreme Court of India
(D) Salary and allowances of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Ans: (B)


854. All revenues received by the Union Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the
(A) Contingency Fund of India
(B) Public Account
(C) Consolidated Fund of India
(D) Deposits and Advances Fund
Ans: (C)


855. How can the President spend from Contingency Fund?
(A) In time of natural calamity
(B) After Authorization of Parliament
(C) Before Authorization of Parliament
(D) Cannot spend
Ans: (C)


856. Who among the following decides whether a particular Bill is a Money Bill?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) The Cabinet
Ans: (C)


857. Money Bill has been defined by the Constitution under Article.
(A) 109
(B) 110
(C) 111
(D) Both (B) and (C)
Ans: (B)


858. A Money Bill under the Constitution of India is tabled in the
(A) Rajya Sabha
(B) Public Accounts Committee
(C) Lok Sabha
(D) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha simultaneously
Ans: (C)


859. Which one of the following statements about a Money Bill is not correct?
(A) A Money Bill can be tabled in either House of Parliament
(B) The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the final authority to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not
(C) The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha and sent it for consideration within 14 days
(D) The President cannot return a Money Bill to the Lok Sabha for reconsideration
Ans: (A)


860. Which one of the following subject is not included in the provisions of the Money Bills?
(A) Provision regarding taxes
(B) Provision regarding borrowings
(C) Provision regarding custody of the Consolidated and Contingency Funds
(D) Provision for imposition of fines or penalties
Ans: (D)


861. Of the following statements, which one is not correct?
(A) The Rajya Sabha is powerless in money matters
(B) Money Bill is introduced in the Rajya Sabha
(C) The Rajya Sabha has to pass the Money Bill within 14 days after it has been passed by the Lok Sabha
(D) The Rajya Sabha may pass or return the Money Bill with some recommendations to the Lok Sabha
Ans: (B)


862. Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to control of Parliament on a budget?
(A) Parliament does not have any role in the creation of the budget
(B) Parliament has the power to move on the affected expenditure on the Consolidated Fund
(C) Parliament has no power to impose a tax without the recommendation of the President
(D) Parliament has no power to increase any tax without the recommendation of the President
Ans: (B)


863. A Bill which merely involves expenditure and does not include any of the matters specified in Article 110 can be
(A) Initiated only in Lok Sabha
(B) Initiated in either House of Parliament
(C) Initiated only in Rajya Sabha
(D) Initiated only in joint session of both House of Parliament
Ans: (B)


864. If the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha……
(A) The Budget is modified and presented again
(B) The Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions
(C) The Union Finance Minister is asked to resign
(D) The Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers
Ans: (D)


865. Which of the following is responsible for preparation and presentation of union budget in the Parliament?
(A) Department of Revenue
(B) Department of Economic Affairs
(C) Department of Financial Services
(D) Department of Expenditure
Ans: (B)


866. Under which of the following taxes the total amount payable by an individual is limited by the Constitution?
(A) Corporation tax
(B) Estate Duty
(C) Succession Duty
(D) Tax on profession, trade and callings
Ans: (D)


867. If budget is disclosed before introducing in the Legislative Assembly, what will happen?
(A) Council of Ministers will have to resign
(B) Chief Minister will have to resign
(C) Finance Minister will have to resign
(D) All of the above
Ans: (C)


868. ‘Votes on Account’ permits Union Government to
(A) Go for public loan
(B) Borrow money from the Reserve Bank of India
(C) Give grant-in-aid to States
(D) Withdraw money from the Consolidated Fund of India for specific period
Ans: (D)


869. Economic Survey is presented in Parliament every year
(A) Before presentation of the Budget for the coming year
(B) After presentation of the Budget for the coming year
(C) After presentation of Finance Bill
(D) And has no relation with presentation of the Budget
Ans: (A)


870. Votes on Account in the Parliament is necessary
(A) When Government expenditure is more than Government revenue
(B) For financing big projects in which huge amount of money is required
(C) When regular budget is not expected to be passed in time
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C)


871. Vote on Account is meant for
(A) Vote on the report of CAG
(B) To meet unforeseen expenditure
(C) Appropriating funds pending passing of budget
(D) Budget
Ans: (C)


872. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding submission of Money Bill?
(A) The Finance Bill is presented in Rajya Sabha
(B) It can be presented in either House of Parliament
(C) It cannot be presented in Lok Sabha
(D) It is presented in Lok Sabha
Ans: (D)


873. Estimates of expenditure are submitted to the Parliament of India in the form of
(A) Adhoc Funds
(B) Excess Grants
(C) Supplementary Grants
(D) Demands for Grants
Ans: (D)


874. Which of the following proposals is related to the Union Budget?
(A) Censure motion
(B) Calling attention
(C) Cut motion
(D) Adjournment motion
Ans: (C)


875. The Finance Bill of Indian Government is presented in
(A) Upper House
(B) Legislative Assembly
(C) Legislative Council
(D) Lower House
Ans: (D)


876. The Consultative Committee of Members of Parliament for Railway Zones is constituted by which of the following?
(A) President of India
(B) Ministry of Railways
(C) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
(D) Ministry of Transport
Ans: (C)


877. According to the Law enacted by Parliament in December 1989, the legal age for a citizen to become major is
(A) 23 years (B) 22 years
(C) 20 years (D) 18 years
Ans: (D)


878. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?
(A) The Committee on Public Accounts
(B) The Committee on Estimates
(C) The Committee on Public Undertakings
(D) The Committee on Petitions
Ans: (B)


879. With reference to Indian Polity, which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) Planning Commission is accountable to Parliament
(B) President can make ordinance only when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session
(C) The minimum age prescribed for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court in 40 years
(D) National development Council is constituted of Union Finance Minister and the Chief Ministers of all the States
Ans: (D)


880. Which of the following is not a tool of Parliamentary control over Public expenditures?
(A) Public Accounts Committee
(B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(C) Estimates Committee
(D) Committee on Public Undertakings
Ans: (B)


881. Tenure of the members of the Estimates Committee is of
(A) Two years (B) One year
(C) Three years (D) Four years
Ans: (B)


882. The Provision for the Calling Attention Notices has restricted the scope of which of the following?
(A) Short duration discussion
(B) Question Hour
(C) Adjournment Motion
(D) Zero Hour
Ans: (C)


883. The members of Standing Committee of Parliament are taken from the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha in which ratio?
(A) Two and one respectively
(B) Three and one respectively
(C) Four and one respectively
(D) In equal numbers from both the Houses
Ans: (A)


884. The Secretariat of Parliament of India is
(A) Under Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(B) Under President
(C) Independent of the Government
(D) Under the Supreme Court
Ans: (C)


885. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is
(A) To allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance
(B) To let opposition members collect information from the ministers
(C) To allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant
(D) To postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members
Ans: (A)


886. The Golden Jubilee of Indian Parliament was celebrated on
(A) 01-01-1997 (B) 15-08-1997
(C) 26-01-2002 (D) 13-05-2002
Ans: (D)


887. Sovereignty of Indian Parliament is restricted by
(A) Powers of the President of India
(B) Judicial review
(C) Leader of the opposition
(D) Powers of the Prime Minister of India
Ans: (B)


888. In which of the following Committees there is no representation of Rajya Sabha?
(A) Public Accounts Committee
(B) Committee on Public Undertakings
(C) Estimates Committee
(D) Committee on Government Assurances
Ans: (C)


889. Who was the Nationalist leader to be elected as Speaker of Central Legislative Assembly in 1925?
(A) Motilal Nehru
(B) Vitthalbhai Patel
(C) Vallabhbhai Patel
(D) C.R. Das
Ans: (B)


890. The Public Accounts Committee submits its reports to
(A) The Comptroller and Auditor General
(B) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(C) The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(D) The President of India
Ans: (B)


891. Public Accounts Committee present its report to
(A) Parliament
(B) The President
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Finance Minister
Ans: (C)


892. The main function of the Accounts Committee of Parliament is
(A) To examine the financial account of the government and report of Comptroller and Auditor General
(B) To appoint on higher posts of public sector units
(C) To examine the policy according to financial provision
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A)


893. The report of Public Accounts Committee is presented in the
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) President’s Office
(C) Finance Ministry
(D) Prime Minister’s Office
Ans: (A)


894. Who nominates the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of Indian Parliament?
(A) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The President
(D) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Ans: (A)


895. Public Accounts Committee has the following members. Give the correct answer from the code given below. Lok Rajya Total Sabha Sabha
(A) 11 05 16
(B) 15 07 22
(C) 10 05 15
(D) 17 10 27
Ans: (B)


896. Estimates Committee is constituted from the members of
(A) Both the Houses
(B) The Rajya Sabha
(C) The Lok Sabha
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C)


897. Members of the Rajya Sabha are not associated with
1. Public Account Committee
2. Estimates Committee
3. Committee on Public Undertakings Choose your answer from given code.
(A) 1 and 2 (B) Only 3
(C) Only 2 (D) 1 and 3
Ans: (C)


898. On which of the following, a Parliamentary Committee has not been set up?
(A) Public Undertakings
(B) Government Assurances
(C) Estimates
(D) Welfare of Minorities
Ans: (D)


899. Which one of the following is a Standing Committee of Parliament?
(A) Committee on Public Accounts
(B) Estimates Committee
(C) Committee on Public Undertakings
(D) All of the above
Ans: (D)


900. The Joint Parliamentary Committee examining the 2G Scam is headed by
(A) Murli Manohar Joshi
(B) P.C. Chacko
(C) A.B. Vardhan
(D) Sitaram Yechuri
Ans: (B)


901. The Joint Parliamentary Committee set up for probing the 2G spectrum issue, consists of
(A) 15 members from each of the two Houses
(B) 20 members from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha
(C) 18 members from Lok Sabha and 12 members from Rajya Sabha
(D) 16 members from Lok Sabha and 14 members from Rajya Sabha
Ans: (B)


902. Consider the table given below. Parliament Council of States Not more than 250 members 12 nominated not more than 238 representatives of States and Union Territories House of the People Not more than 552 members and not more than 524 representatives of States plus not more than 2 nominated Anglo-Indians and X. Which one of the following will fit in the place marked ‘X’?
(A) Ministers who are not members of Parliament but who have to get themselves elected to either House of Parliament within six months after assuming office
(B) Not more than 20 nominated members
(C) Not more than 26 representatives of Union Territories
(D) The Attorney General who has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of either House of Parliament
Ans: (C)


903. In what way does the Indian Parliament exercise control over the administration?
(A) Through Parliamentary Committees
(B) Through Advisory Committees of various ministries
(C) By making the administrators send periodic reports
(D) By compelling the executive to issue writs
Ans: (A)


904. The Parliament of India consist of
1. President
2. Rajya Sabha
3. Lok Sabha
4. Vice-President Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (A)


905. Which of the following is/are stated in the Constitution of India?
1. The President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament.
2. The Parliament shall consist of the President and two Houses. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
(A) Neither 1 nor 2
(B) Both 1 and 2
(C) Only 1
(D) Only 2
Ans: (B)


906. Federal Parliament may legislate on any subject of State List.
1. To Implement International Agreements.
2. By consent of State.
3. When Proclamation of Emergency is in operation.
4. In national interest and after a resolution passed by state legislative assembly with 2/3 majority. Choose the correct option using codes given below.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) All of these
Ans: (D)


907. The Officers of the Parliament include
1. Speaker, Lok Sabha
2. Deputy Speaker, Lok Sabha
3. Secretary-General, Lok Sabha
4. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
Ans: (D)


908. Joint Session of both the Houses of Parliament is concerned.
1. For the election of the President of India
2. For the election of the Vice- President of India
3. To pass the Bill relating to the amendment of Constitution
4. To discuss and pass such a Bill where both Houses have different opinion Select your answer from the following code.
(A) 1 and 4 (B) 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 2 (D) Only 4
Ans: (D)


909. The Indian Parliament cannot legislate on a subject of state-list unless
1. The President of India directs it to do so.
2. The Rajya Sabha passes a resolution that it is necessary to do so in national interest.
3. The Speaker of the Vidhan Sabha certifies that the legislation is necessary.
4. There is a national emergency. Considering the above statements, select the correct answer from the codes given below.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 2 and 4
Ans: (D)


910. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of
1. Ordinary Legislation
2. Money Bill
3. Constitution Amendment Bill Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) Only 1 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (A)


911. Consider the following statements.
1. The joint sitting of both Houses of the Parliament in India is sanctioned under Article 108 of the Constitution.
2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961.
3. The second joint sitting of both Houses of Indian Parliament was held to pass the Banking Service Commission (Repeal), Bill. Which of these statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (D)


912. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.
2. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (B)


913. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements.
1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (D)


914. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements.
1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament.
2. No amount can be withdra-wan from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India.
3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the Parliament of India. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 2
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (C)


915. Consider the following statements.
1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
2. While the nominated members of the Both Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the Presidential election, they have Right to Vote in the election of the Vice-President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (B)


916. What is the difference between ‘Vote-on-Account’ and ‘interim budget’?
1. The provision of a ‘Vote-on- Account’ is used by a stable Government, while ‘interim budget’ is a provision used by a caretaker Government.
2. A ‘Vote-on-Account’ only deals with the expenditure in Government’s budget while an ‘interim budget’ includes both expenditure and receipts. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (B)


917. Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India?
1. Placing Annual Finance Statement before the Parliament.
2. Withdrawal of money from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill.
3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account.
4. A periodic or atleast a mid year review of the programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office.
5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 3, 4, and 5
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: (A)


918. Prior sanction of the President of India is required before introducing a Bill in the Parliament on
1. Formation of a new State
2. Affecting taxation in which States are interested
3. Altering the boundaries of the States
4. Money Bill Considering the above statements, select the correct answer from the code given below.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) All of these
Ans: (D)


919. The stages in the normal financial legislation include
1. Presentation of the Budget
2. Discussion on the Budget
3. Passing of Appropriation Bill
4. Vote on Account
5. Passing of the Finance Bill Select the correct answer from the code given below.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 5
Ans: (D)


920. What is correct about the starred question?
1. Answer is given oral.
2. Answer is given in written.
3. Supplementary questions can be asked.
4. Supplementary questions cannot be asked.
5. Answers can be discussed.
6. Speaker controls answer. Code
(A) 2 and 4 (B) 1 and 3
(C) 5 and 6 (D) 3 and 5
Ans: (B)


921. Examine the following statements and choose the correct answer from the given options.
1. Right to Property is not a Fundamental Right now.
2. Rajya Sabha can stop a Financial Bill.
3. In the Preamble of Indian Constitution Secular and Democratic words were added by 42nd amendment of the Indian Constitution.
4. Any dispute of the Parliament can be resolved by the system of Speaker of the Lok Sabha. Code
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3
(C) 1 and 4 (D) 2 and 3
Ans: (A)


922. With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements.
1. The Ministries/Departments of the Government of India are created by the Prime Minister on the advice of the Cabinet Secretary.
2. Each of the Ministries is assigned to a Minister by the President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (B)


923. The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through
1. Adjournment motion
2. Question Hour
3. Supplementary questions Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (D)


924. Consider the following statements.
1. While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts and Public Undertakings, members of Committee on Estimates are drawn entirely from Lok Sabha.
2. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs works under the overall direction of Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs.
3. The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs nominates members of Parliament on Committees, Councils, Boards and Commissions etc., set up by the Government of India in various ministries. Which of these statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (D)


925. Consider the following statements.
1. The Chairman of the Committee on Public Accounts is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
2. The Committee on Public Accounts comprises Members of Lok Sabha, Member of Rajya Sabha and a few eminent persons of industry and trade. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (A)


926. Which of the following is the Financial Committees of Parliament in India?
1. Public Account Committee
2. Estimates Committee
3. Committee on Public Undertakings Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
(A) Only 1 (B) 1 and 2
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (D)


927. Consider the following statements. The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts
1. consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha.
2. scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government.
3. examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) Only 1 (B) 2 and 3
(C) Only 3 (D) All of these
Ans: (B)


928. Assertion (A): Under Article 368, the Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution. Reason (R): The Parliament is the Supreme Legislative body elected by the People of India. Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans: (A)


929. The Officers of the Parliament include
1. Speaker, Lok Sabha
2. Dy. Speaker, Lok Sabha
3. Secretary General of Lok Sabha
4. Chairman of Rajya Sabha Select the correct answer from the codes given below. Code
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
Ans: (D)


930. Offences are tried under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 by the Courts of
(A) Sessions Court
(B) Judicial Magistrate First Class
(C) Judicial Magistrate Second Class
(D) Chief Judicial Magistrate
Ans: (B)


931. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists. List-I
(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Committee on Petitions
(c) Joint Committee on Stock Market Scam
(d) Departmental Committees List-II
1. Adhoc Committee
2. Standing Committee
3. Financial Committee
4. Functional Committee Code
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 4 3 2 (B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 1 2 (D) 4 2 1 3
Ans: (C)


932. In which year was Prevention of Food Adulteration Act first enacted?
(A) 1951 (B) 1954
(C) 1964 (D) 1956
Ans: (B)


933. Under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955. All offences are
(A) Cognizable
(B) Bailable
(C) Punishment with imprisonment and fine both
(D) Both (A) and (C)
Ans: (D)


934. The Protection of Civil Rights Act extends to
(A) The whole of India
(B) The whole of India except the Scheduled areas
(C) The whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir
(D) The whole of India except the Union Territories of Goa, Daman and Diu
Ans: (A)


935. All offences punishable under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 are
(A) Cognizable and Non-bailable
(B) Cognizable and Summarily Triable
(C) Non-cognizable and Bailable
(D) Non-cognizable and Compoundable
Ans: (B)


936. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(A) Hindu Marriage Act – 1955
(B) Hindu Succession Act – 1956
(C) 73rd Constitutional Amendment – Reservation of seats for women in the election of local bodies in urban areas
(D) Sati (Prevention) Act – 1987
Ans: (C)


937. Who is held responsible for the offences committed by Companies, under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955?
(A) Director
(B) Manager
(C) Secretary
(D) All of the above
Ans: (D)


938. Which of the following is not a Social Act?
(A) MISA Act
(B) Anti-Dowry Act
(C) Protection of Civil Rights Act
(D) Prevention of Immoral Traffic Act
Ans: (A)


939. The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act came into force on
(A) 20th September, 2005
(B) 30th September, 2006
(C) 10th October, 2006
(D) 26th October, 2006
Ans: (D)


940. The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 came into force on
(A) 1st July, 1989
(B) 30th January, 1990
(C) 30th July, 1989
(D) 1st January, 1990
Ans: (B)


941. When was the Criminal Tribes Act enacted for the first time?
(A) 1952 (B) 1924
(C) 1871 (D) 1911
Ans: (C)


942. Who has/had the power to make rules for carrying out the purposes of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989?
(A) The State Government
(B) The Central Government
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) The Supreme Court
Ans: (B)


943. Under which Act the Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe Atrocity Removal law was implemented?
(A) Act 1990
(B) Act 1989
(C) Act 1992
(D) Act 1991
Ans: (B)


944. The State Government can specify a Court of Session to be a Special Court to try the offences under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 with the concurrence of the
(A) Governor
(B) Chief Justice of High Court
(C) Session Judge of concerned district
(D) Ministry of Law
Ans: (B)


945. Offence committed by any public servant under Section 3 of the SC and ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, provides for minimum punishment of
(A) Three months
(B) Six months
(C) One year
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C)


946. Who is empowered for imposition and realization of a collective fine under SC and ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989?
(A) District Magistrate
(B) State Government
(C) Special Court
(D) High Court
Ans: (B)


947. The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act is a special provision for the advancement of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes which is based on which one of the following doctrines?
(A) Doctrine of Severability
(B) Doctrine of Preferred Position
(C) Doctrine of Protective discrimination
(D) Doctrine of Harmonious Construction
Ans: (C)


948. Which of the following Sections of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes Act, 1989 provides for application of certain provisions of the Indian Penal Code?
(A) Section 12
(B) Section 10
(C) Section 6
(D) Section 8
Ans: (C)


949. In a prosecution for an offence under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, the court can presume which of the following?
(A) Abetment
(B) Common Intention
(C) Common Object
(D) All of the above
Ans: (D)


950. Under which of the following Sections of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Act, 1989 is anticipatory bail prohibited?
(A) Section 16 (B) Section 17
(C) Section 18 (D) Section 19
Ans: (C)


951. Under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, which of the following is barred?
(A) Anticipatory Bail
(B) Post-arrest Bail
(C) Benefit of probation
(D) All of the above
Ans: (A)


952. Which of the following power is not provided to specified Special Court under Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act?
(A) Forfeiture of property of a convict of an offence
(B) To authorize a person for extra investigation other than police
(C) To remove a person from the area who is suspected of committing a crime
(D) Take measurement and photograph of a person who is suspected of committing a crime
Ans: (B)


953. An offence committed under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 shall be investigated by a police officer, not below the rank of
(A) Sub Inspector
(B) Inspector
(C) Deputy Superintendent
(D) Superintendent
Ans: (C)


954. In a prosecution for an offence under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, the accused in his defence cannot take the plea that
(A) The Act was done in exercise of the right of private defence
(B) He also belongs to the caste as that of the victim
(C) The Act causes such a slight harm which could not be a subject of the complaint
(D) Both (A) and (C)
Ans: (D)


955. Which of the following powers a Special Court cannot exercise under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989?
(A) To remove a person
(B) To forfeit the property
(C) To take measurement of a person
(D) To impose collective fine
Ans: (D)


956. Under which one of the following Sections of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes Rules, 1995, Constitution of ‘District Level Vigilance and Monitoring Committee’ has been provided?
(A) Section 18 (B) Section 19
(C) Section 17 (D) Section 16
Ans: (C)


957. A Court of Session specified as Special Court to try the offences under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act for the purpose of providing
(A) Speedy trial
(B) Time bound trial
(C) Special protection to victims
(D) All of the above
Ans: (A)


958. The Right to Information Act of Parliament received the assent of the President of India on
(A) 15th May, 2005
(B) 5th June, 2005
(C) 15th June, 2005
(D) 12th October, 2005
Ans: (C)


959. The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?
(A) To provide self-governance
(B) To recognize traditional rights
(C) To create autonomous regions
(D) To free tribal peoples from exploitation
Ans: (C)


960. Right to Information Act was passed in the year.
(A) 2001 (B) 2004
(C) 2005 (D) 2002
Ans: (C)


961. Which one of the following statements is true about right to information?
(A) It is a political right
(B) It is a constitutional right
(C) It is a legal right
(D) It is a social right
Ans: (C)


962. Which of the following is related to Right to Information Act, 2005?
(A) Lily Thomas Vs. Union of India
(B) Nandini Sundar Vs. State of Chhattisgarh
(C) Namit Sharma Vs. Union of India
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C)


963. Consider the following statements about the ‘Right to Information
(RTI) Act, 2005’ and select one which has not been provided for or is specially exempted.
(A) It is not applicable in the State of Jammu and Kashmir
(B) An applicant making request for information will have to given reasons for seeking information
(C) Removal of Chief Information Commissioner
(D) Every Information Commissioner shall hold office for a term of 5 years or until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier
Ans: (B)


964. Which High Court has said in its important decision that “the R.T.I. applicant should tell the reason for asking information under Right to Information”?
(A) Calcutta High Court
(B) Bombay High Court
(C) Allahabad High Court
(D) Madras High Court
Ans: (D)


965. The objective of Right to Information Act is to
(A) Secure access to information from Public authorities
(B) Provide information to the public by a person who has the information
(C) Provide information by Government on a public place
(D) Secure information by police from culprits
Ans: (A)


966. Which one of the following statements with respect to the Land Acquisition Act, 1894 is not true?
(A) It was made by the British rulers
(B) Its purpose was to help the process of land reforms in India
(C) It has been replaced by another Act of India’s Parliament
(D) Its implementation had become disputed
Ans: (B)


967. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers
(Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?
(A) State Forest Department
(B) District Collector/Deputy Commissioner
(C) Tahsildar/Block Development Officer/Mandal Revenue Officer
(D) Gram Sabha
Ans: (D)


968. With reference to consumers rights/ privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.
2. When a consumer files a complaint in any Consumer Forum, no fee is required to be paid.
3. In the case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the Consumer Forum on his/her behalf. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (C)


969. The Prevention of Money Laundering Act came into inforce in India during
(A) 1998 (B) 1999
(C) 2001 (D) 2005
Ans: (D)


970. Consider the following statements. Assertion (A): The Right to Information Act has in general been responsible for increasing the sense of responsibility in bureaucracy. Reason (R): It still has miles to go to create the desired impact. Select the correct answer from the code given below. Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans: (B)

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